ODP Anaesthetic quiz

Intermediate level

(Band 6)
  1. Place the Anaphylaxis treatment steps in order (1-8):

    a
    b
    c
    d
    e
    e
    f
    g
    Correct Wrong
      *Adrenaline (1:1,000):  Adult: 500 mcg (½ ml); || Child under 6: 150 mcg; || Child 6-12: 300 mcg
  2. Define Functional Residual Capacity.
  3. What is the dose for Sugammadex?
  4. Explain the Train of Four.
  5. What does paresis mean?
  6. What is the difference between weight and mass?
  7. Why would a patient be given Cryoprecipitate?
  8. When using a Bain circuit, an oxygen flow of 3-4 * minute volume is needed, if rebreathing is to be avoided; True or false?
  9. What is an I.U.?
  10. What does Fresh Frozen Plasma do?
  11. How does MAC change with age?
  12. Arterial pressure is dependent on systemic vascular resistance and cariac output; True or false?
  13. Thiopentone, a negative inotrope, can produce hypertension; True or false?
  14. Describe Pulmonary Shunt?
  15. What is the difference between nebulise and atomise?
  16. For what kind of procedure would the use of Jet ventilation be appropriate?
  17. Which Opioid has the shortest ½ life?
  18. What is the normal level of blood glucose, for a non diabetic?
  19. What are the factors which produce a value for Cardiac Output?
  20. Adrenaline causes vasodilation; True or false?
  21. What is considered to be a normal range for an INR?
  22. Define Hypovolaemic Shock.
  23. What is the reason for extubating deep?
  24. Glycopyrrolate

    What are the (6) contraindications? Correct
     

  25. During a cardiac arrest, a standard dose of intravenous Adrenaline is to be administered. The only available Adrenaline is a 1 ml ampoule of a 1:1000 solution. What do you do?
  26. What is Acetylcholine, and what does it do?
  27. What type of surgery is classified as Deep Incisional?
  28. At maximum flow, how long will it take 1 litre of saline to be expended through a 20g cannula?
  29. What is Pulmonary Oedema?
  30. Internal respiration occurs in the lungs; True or false?
  31. What is an Inotrope? Give examples.
  32. What are early signs of hypovolemia?
  33. What is the safe apnoea time?
  34. Arterial CO2 decreases as ventilation increases; True or false?
  35. What is Post Obstructive Pulmonary Oedema?
  36. How can you tell that reversal of muscle relaxation is successful?
  37. The Pulmonary artery takes oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart; True or false?
  38. What is GTN, and what is it used for?
  39. Capnography

    Following intubation, there is no capnograph signal.
    What are some (6) of the possible reasons?
    Correct 


  40. An ECG trace reflects muscular activity of the heart; True or false?
  41. In the anaesthetic room, the anaesthetic machine monitor shows the patient's Et CO2 as "5.5". A few minutes later, the theatre monitor reads "39". What could be the reason for the discrepancy?
  42. What is the meaning of a hyperbaric drug?
  43. Under what circumstances would an Oxford HELP Pillow be of use?
  44. Describe the Train of four.
  45. What effect has Neostigmine on acetylcholinesterase?
  46. Electrical current is measured in volts; True or false?
  47. What is Amikacin?
  48. Hyoscine can be used to treat PONV; True or false?
  49. Cardiac output depends on patient weight and heart rate; True or false?
  50. Thrombocyte is another name for a Platelet; True or false?
  51. What effect has Clonidone (Catapres) on blood pressure?
  52. What is the immediate action for needlestick injury?
  53. Malignant Hyperthermia

    What are the (5) early signs? Correct
     

  54. What is the immediate treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?
  55. What is the purpose of the Negative Pressure Leak test?
  56. Adrenaline increases cardiac output; True or false?
  57. What types of infection is Co-amoxiclav suitable for?
  58. What are typical signs of local anaesthetic toxicity?
  59. What does Paroxysmal mean?
  60. Why is it necessary to understand the half life of a drug and its antagonists?
  61. What are the symptoms of severe sepsis?
  62. Why is 5% Dextrose added to Noradrenaline?
  63. What is the difference between the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nervous systems?
  64. Resuscitation: it is safe to use an AED on a patient who is lying on a metallic surface; True or false?
  65. Define Aetiology.
  66. A defective Inspiratory circuit valve can result in the patient suffering tension pneumothorax; True or False?
  67. What are the causes of increased peak airway pressure during IPPV?
  68. What does a Shark fin shaped capnograph suggest?
  69. Which is more soluble in the blood: Isoflurane or Desflurane?
  70. Place the Paediatric Life Support steps in order (1-10):

    a
    b
    c
    d
    e
    f
    g
    h
    i
    j
    Correct Wrong
    Refer to the Resuscitation Council Guidelines

     

Intermediate level

(Band 6, Higher)
  1. What is Post-operative residual curarization?
  2. What is the adult dose of Thiopentone?
  3. In what dilution is Ephedrine to be prepared?
  4. What is the adult dose of Ephedrine, for treating hypotension?
  5. Increased patient weight requires a volatile agent with a higher MAC value; True or false?
  6. Atropine is a vagolytic; True or false?
  7. Nitrous Oxide is highly soluble in blood; True or false?
  8. The Functional Residual Capacity is the volume of gas remaining in the lungs after a normal inspiration; True or false?
  9. Rocuronium is an aminosteroid; True or false?
  10. Which inhaled anaesthetic agent has the least effect on blood pressure?
  11. Phentolamine can increase blood pressure; True or false?
  12. What factors reduce Functional Residual Capacity?
  13. What is suggested by the following arterial blood gas analysis values:
    pH: 7.48
    PaCO2: 4.1 kPa
    HCO3: 19 mmol/litre.
  14. Describe a typical (healthy 70 kg adult) preparation of a Noradrenaline infusion.
  15. During apnoea, if the airway is obstructed, positive intrapulmonary pressure can develop; True or false?
  16. What is the Thyromental distance?
  17. What is the MAC of Sevoflurane, for a 25 year old patient?
  18. Define muscarinic.
  19. Explain N.O.D.E.S.A.T.
  20. What is the paediatric dose of Atropine?
  21. A dilated vein reduces resistance to fluid flow; True or false?
  22. Nitrous 0xide provides analgesia; True or false?
  23. Potassium is a metal; True or false?
  24. What is a nicotinic receptor?
  25. What is a muscarinic receptor?
  26. Calcium stimulates the heart to contract; true or false?
  27. An anaesthetised patient, who has hyperthyroidism, may suffer hypertension; True or false?
  28. What is Prothrombin Complex Concentrate?
  29. A patient, who is breathing room air, and using a Morphine PCA, experiences a drop in oxygen saturation. What is the most likely cause?
  30. Airway obstruction

    What are the some (6) of the signs? Correct
     

  31. What is Congestive heart failure?
  32. What are the contraindications to Diclofenac?
  33. What are the contraindications to Dexamethasone?
  34. One contraindication to Spinal anaesthesia is hypovolaemia; True or false?
  35. What pharmacological type of drug is Thiopentone?
  36. What effect does high intra-abdominal pressure have on a Spinal block?
  37. What is a Grand Mal Seizure?
  38. What is Ketorolac?
  39. What is Shunt physiology?
  40. A patient, in Recovery, is breathing spontaneously. Why is pulse oximetry of little use in determining whether or not the patient is apnoeic, or suffering respiratory depression?
  41. Why would Ketamine be a suitable induction agent for hypovolaemic or shocked patients?
  42. What is Porphyria?
  43. Etomidate has a limited effect on the cardiovascular system; True or false?
  44. What is Chlorphenamine used for?
  45. Hydrogen peroxide is a by product of metabolism; True or false?
  46. What is the (perioperative) cause of Masseter Spasm?
  47. The Parasympathetic nervous system stimulates the Fight or Flight response; True or false?
  48. Which is more likely to to stimulate a higher rate of breathing, a 7% reduction in inspired oxygen, or a 7% increase in inspired carbon dioxide?
  49. What is Sodium Bicarbonate typically used for?
  50. For what reason would a patient be given Vitamin K?
  51. What is the difference between Oncotic and Hydrostatic pressure?
  52. What is Mitosis?
  53. What Mapleson classification is an Ambu bag?
  54. What is the function of Anti-Diuretic Hormone?
  55. Nitrous oxide can trigger Malignant Hyperthermia; True or false?
  56. Blood transfusion reaction

    What are some (7) of the early signs? Correct
     

  57. Define Abdominal Splinting.
  58. What is the difference between a Pneumothorax. and a Tension Pneumothorax?
  59. What are Antibodies?
  60. What are Antigens?
  61. What constitutes evidence of inadequate cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion?
  62. What might be a significant factor, for a patient who is to be anaesthetised, and who has a very low level of Pseudocholinesterase in the blood?
  63. What are the typical ranges of glucose levels (adults) for Type 1 and Type 2 diabetics (before meals)?
  64. What is the main safety factor for a patient being awake when having a regional block?
  65. Checking the Anaesthetic machine: With the APL valve set to maximum, a reservoir bag is attached to the patient end of the circle circuit, and the bag is fully inflated (using the oxygen flush). After several minutes, the reservoir bag is still fully inflated. What, has this test proved or not proved?
  66. What is the immediate treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity?
  67. What does Adenosine do?
  68. What are the symptoms of Septic Shock?
  69. What is the difference between a Diluent and a Solvent?
  70. How is Neostigmine/Glycopyrrolate supplied, and what is the adult dose?
  71. Describe the Planes of anaesthesia.
  72. Define Osmolarity.
  73. Why cannot Nitrous oxide be used as a sole anaesthetic agent?
  74. Nitrous Oxide does not accumulate in fat; True or false?
  75. Nitrous oxide is eliminated very rapidly; True or false?
  76. An anaesthetic gas, with low blood solubility, produces a slower induction time than one with a higher blood solubility; True or false?
  77. What effect do hypotonic cells have on fluid balance?
  78. Scalpel Cricothyroidotomy - palpable cricothyroid membrane


    Place the cricothyroidotomy steps in order (1-7):

    a
    b
    c
    d
    e
    f
    g
    Correct Wrong
    Refer to the Difficult Airway Society Guidelines

     
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